Question: On 15/3/2017, the Chair of the US Federal Reserve, Janet Yellen, announced that the Federal Open Market Committee decided overnight to raise the interest rate by a quarter of a percentage. This is the second time that the interest rate has been raised within three months, and it was noted that it will be raised twice later this year ... It is known that raising interest (usury) means the recovery of the economy, but the US economy is still suffering from crises, so how can this be explained? Thank you.
Assalamu Alaikum WA Rahmatulah Wa Barakatuhu,
This is an observation on the Admin page: the word “La zal” (which means “still is”) is not to be used in the present tense, as for being used in the past tense, its meaning becomes “a duaa for not perishing” and it is a common mistake...
It was mentioned in the book of The System of Islam (on page 11, Arabic Edition) as follows: “…because his understanding of the organization of man's instincts and organic needs is liable to disparity, differences, contradiction…” It is my understanding that the terms disparity (Tafawot) and difference (Ikhtilaf) were synonymous, that is they have one meaning or close meanings. However, the difference between them is that every disparity is vilified,
What is your vision for the method of carrying out the “smelting” process after taking power? Will it be through group culturing circles (Halaqat) or lectures, or through Media and Education Curriculum? Jazak Allah Khair
It is mentioned in the book, The Islamic Personality Volume 3, that: “Also the Sahaabah may Allah be pleased with them inferred the corruption and the invalidity of contracts from the prohibition, from that is Ibn 'Omar's proof of the invalidity of marrying the polytheist women by the saying of Allah Ta'ala:((وَلَا تَنْكِحُوا الْمُشْرِكَاتِ)) “Do not marry polytheist women...” and no one disapproved this of him so it was a consensus”.
My question is, Barak Allahu feekum, how is the matter a consensus when the evidence is apparent in the verse?
We have learnt that ‘Umar Ibn Al-Khattaab (ra) did not cut the hand of the thief in the year of the famine. So was the suspension of this Hukm in this circumstance only due to an ‘Illah (Sharee’ah reasoning) that had ceased to be and the Hukm of cutting ceased to exist along with it?? And if that is the case then what is the ‘Illah for the Hukm of cutting?
“It is not permissible for a woman who believes in Allah and the Last Day to travel for a day and night’s journey except with a mahram.” Narrated by Muslim from Abu Huraira, may Allah be pleased with him
I have a question about the difference between Khair (good) and Shar (evil), and Husn (pretty) and Qubh (ugly)? Because when the topic is raised among the brothers, varying answers are given on the subject, please explain to us the difference between the two subjects, May Allah bless you.
Bismillah Ar-Rahman Ar-Raheem, Assalamu Alaikum wa Rahmatullah wa Barakatuhu,
It was mentioned in the book Islamic Personality, Volume 3, [Arabic edition, p. 331] the following: as Allah (swt) says: (فَآتُوهُنَّ أُجُورَهُنَّ) "give them [the women] their Mahr as prescribed" [An-Nisaa: 24].